CTET February 2026 Mock Test Sheet PDF

CTET February 2026 Mock Test Sheet PDF
CTET February 2026 Mock Test - 120 MCQs

CTET February 2026 Mock Test – 120 MCQs with Options and Instant Score

Instructions: Select one option for every question and click Submit Test & Check Answers. This is an original practice set based on the CTET February 2026 syllabus structure; it is not an official CTET question paper.

  • Total Questions: 120
  • Marks: 120
  • One mark for each question
  • No negative marking in the official CTET structure

Child Development & Pedagogy

Q1. Which approach places the learner at the centre of the teaching-learning process?

Q2. According to Vygotsky, the Zone of Proximal Development refers to the gap between what a learner can do independently and what the learner can do with ______.

Q3. Which type of assessment is mainly used during the teaching-learning process to improve learning?

Q4. Inclusive education primarily aims to:

Q5. Piaget is mainly associated with the theory of:

Q6. A child's errors in learning should generally be viewed by a teacher as:

Q7. Which factor is included in the social context of learning?

Q8. A teacher who encourages children to ask questions is promoting:

Q9. Individual differences among learners may arise from differences in:

Q10. Assessment for learning is primarily intended to:

Q11. Which statement best reflects a constructivist view of learning?

Q12. Motivation in learning can be influenced by:

Q13. A good facilitator of learning should:

Q14. Gender roles in education should be understood as:

Q15. Which classroom practice supports inclusive education?

Q16. Learning as a social activity highlights the importance of:

Q17. Which theorist is associated with stages of moral development?

Q18. A teacher uses questions to find out what students already know before beginning a lesson. This is an example of assessing:

Q19. A learner-centred teacher is most likely to:

Q20. Which of the following is an example of remedial teaching?

Q21. Children's language and thought are:

Q22. A diverse classroom may include differences in:

Q23. Which practice best develops problem-solving ability?

Q24. Cognition refers broadly to processes involved in:

Q25. A teacher should respond to repeated mistakes by first:

Q26. School-based assessment should be:

Q27. The concept of multiple dimensions of intelligence challenges the idea that:

Q28. Which is most consistent with progressive education?

Q29. Children learn effectively when teaching considers:

Q30. The main role of a teacher in a constructivist classroom is to:

Mathematics

Q31. What is 25 × 4?

Q32. Which of the following is a prime number?

Q33. What is 3/4 expressed as a decimal?

Q34. The perimeter of a square with side 6 cm is:

Q35. What is the value of 7²?

Q36. Which number is an integer?

Q37. If a rectangle has length 8 cm and breadth 5 cm, its area is:

Q38. The ratio 2:3 is equivalent to:

Q39. What is 15% of 200?

Q40. Which fraction is equivalent to 1/2?

Q41. A line segment has:

Q42. An angle of 90° is called:

Q43. Which instrument is commonly used to measure an angle?

Q44. The pedagogical study of children's errors in mathematics is useful because it can:

Q45. Diagnostic teaching is mainly used to:

Q46. Community mathematics connects mathematics with:

Q47. Which activity best promotes mathematical reasoning?

Q48. Informal assessment in mathematics can include:

Q49. The language of mathematics includes:

Q50. A remedial mathematics lesson should be based on:

Science & Environmental Studies

Q51. Plants prepare food mainly through:

Q52. The green pigment in leaves is:

Q53. Water changes into vapour through:

Q54. Which is a renewable natural resource?

Q55. The process by which water vapour changes into liquid water is:

Q56. Which organ pumps blood through the human body?

Q57. A complete electric circuit must provide:

Q58. Which material is attracted by a magnet?

Q59. Which gas is essential for human respiration?

Q60. Which is an example of a habitat?

Q61. EVS at the primary stage is intended to provide an integrated understanding of:

Q62. Which method is especially useful for learning science through direct evidence?

Q63. A good EVS activity should generally:

Q64. Which source is most suitable for observing local biodiversity?

Q65. Which of the following is a component of food?

Q66. Which practice helps conserve water?

Q67. Science learning should encourage children to:

Q68. Which classroom resource can support EVS learning?

Q69. Which process is commonly used to separate insoluble solid particles from a liquid?

Q70. The movement of people, animals and ideas is included in the broader study of:

Social Science

Q71. History helps learners understand:

Q72. A primary source is generally:

Q73. The study of the Earth, environment and human activities is associated with:

Q74. The Constitution of India is a key topic under:

Q75. Democracy broadly involves:

Q76. Local government is concerned with:

Q77. The judiciary is primarily associated with:

Q78. Understanding Media encourages learners to examine:

Q79. Social justice includes attention to:

Q80. A useful social science classroom should encourage:

Q81. The Nationalist Movement is studied under:

Q82. Resources may be classified as:

Q83. Agriculture is studied in school social science primarily in relation to:

Q84. Diversity refers to differences among people in areas such as:

Q85. A project in social science should ideally involve:

Q86. Critical thinking in social science involves:

Q87. Parliamentary government is a topic related to:

Q88. A map is primarily used to represent:

Q89. Social science teaching should use both:

Q90. Evaluation in social science can assess:

Language I

Q91. Which language skill is closely associated with understanding spoken language?

Q92. Reading comprehension mainly involves:

Q93. A teacher using stories to develop language is supporting:

Q94. Language acquisition is generally supported by:

Q95. Speaking activities can help learners develop:

Q96. A multilingual classroom can use learners' languages as:

Q97. Grammar is most useful when taught in connection with:

Q98. An unseen passage tests:

Q99. Remedial language teaching should begin with:

Q100. Listening, speaking, reading and writing are:

Q101. A good language classroom should encourage:

Q102. Teaching-learning materials for language may include:

Q103. A teacher should treat language errors as:

Q104. Language pedagogy should recognise that children learn language through:

Q105. A comprehension question requiring a learner to infer meaning tests:

Language II

Q106. Language II should be:

Q107. Language comprehension questions may assess:

Q108. A discursive passage generally presents:

Q109. The best way to develop speaking ability is to provide:

Q110. A learner's pronunciation error can be addressed through:

Q111. Language learning is strengthened when learners:

Q112. Which is a receptive language skill?

Q113. Which is a productive language skill?

Q114. A teacher uses a picture sequence and asks learners to narrate a story. This develops:

Q115. A multilingual classroom benefits from:

Q116. A language assessment should ideally measure:

Q117. Remedial teaching is most effective when it is:

Q118. The role of listening in language development is:

Q119. A teacher can develop vocabulary effectively through:

Q120. Language teaching should promote:

Answer Key

Correct answers are shown below after submission.

  1. Q1: B
  2. Q2: B
  3. Q3: A
  4. Q4: B
  5. Q5: A
  6. Q6: B
  7. Q7: A
  8. Q8: B
  9. Q9: A
  10. Q10: A
  11. Q11: A
  12. Q12: A
  13. Q13: A
  14. Q14: A
  15. Q15: A
  16. Q16: A
  17. Q17: A
  18. Q18: A
  19. Q19: A
  20. Q20: A
  21. Q21: A
  22. Q22: A
  23. Q23: A
  24. Q24: A
  25. Q25: A
  26. Q26: A
  27. Q27: A
  28. Q28: A
  29. Q29: A
  30. Q30: A
  31. Q31: C
  32. Q32: C
  33. Q33: C
  34. Q34: C
  35. Q35: C
  36. Q36: B
  37. Q37: C
  38. Q38: B
  39. Q39: C
  40. Q40: B
  41. Q41: B
  42. Q42: B
  43. Q43: B
  44. Q44: A
  45. Q45: A
  46. Q46: A
  47. Q47: A
  48. Q48: A
  49. Q49: A
  50. Q50: A
  51. Q51: B
  52. Q52: B
  53. Q53: B
  54. Q54: A
  55. Q55: B
  56. Q56: B
  57. Q57: A
  58. Q58: B
  59. Q59: A
  60. Q60: A
  61. Q61: A
  62. Q62: A
  63. Q63: A
  64. Q64: A
  65. Q65: A
  66. Q66: A
  67. Q67: A
  68. Q68: A
  69. Q69: A
  70. Q70: A
  71. Q71: A
  72. Q72: A
  73. Q73: A
  74. Q74: A
  75. Q75: A
  76. Q76: A
  77. Q77: A
  78. Q78: A
  79. Q79: A
  80. Q80: A
  81. Q81: A
  82. Q82: A
  83. Q83: A
  84. Q84: A
  85. Q85: A
  86. Q86: A
  87. Q87: A
  88. Q88: A
  89. Q89: A
  90. Q90: A
  91. Q91: A
  92. Q92: A
  93. Q93: A
  94. Q94: A
  95. Q95: A
  96. Q96: A
  97. Q97: A
  98. Q98: A
  99. Q99: A
  100. Q100: A
  101. Q101: A
  102. Q102: A
  103. Q103: A
  104. Q104: A
  105. Q105: A
  106. Q106: B
  107. Q107: A
  108. Q108: A
  109. Q109: A
  110. Q110: A
  111. Q111: A
  112. Q112: A
  113. Q113: A
  114. Q114: A
  115. Q115: A
  116. Q116: A
  117. Q117: A
  118. Q118: A
  119. Q119: A
  120. Q120: A

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