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CTET/TET 2026 SET-3 Paper II (Code Q)

CTET/TET 2026 SET-3 Paper II (Code Q): Complete Analysis, Questions, Answers & Preparation Strategy

CTET/TET 2026 SET-3 Paper II (Code Q)

Complete Analysis · 150 Questions · Answers & Explanations · Preparation Strategy

Exam Overview & Key Instructions

Total Duration: 2.5 hours
Total Questions: 150
Total Marks: 150 (1 mark per question)
Negative Marking: None
Test Booklet Code: Q

Structure:

Part I: Child Development and Pedagogy (Q. 1–30)
Part II: Mathematics and Science (Q. 31–90) or
Part III: Social Studies / Social Science (Q. 31–90)
Part IV: Language I – English/Hindi (Q. 91–120)
Part V: Language II – English/Hindi (Q. 121–150)

Note Candidates must attempt either Part II or Part III for Q. 31–90.

Part I: Child Development & Pedagogy (Q. 1–30)

This section tests understanding of child psychology, learning theories, and teaching methodologies.

Which of the following typical characteristics is a child struggling with dysgraphia likely to show?

Withdrawal, guilt and anxiety
Aggression, frustration and stress
Impulsiveness; difficulty in concentrating and forgetfulness
Slow in written work; makes poorly formed letters, has difficulty copying from blackboard

✔ Correct Answer: (4) Slow in written work; makes poorly formed letters, has difficulty copying from blackboard

Explanation: Dysgraphia is a learning disability that affects writing abilities. It manifests as poor handwriting, slow writing speed, and difficulty with copying text.

Assertion (A): Children learn most effectively when they are criticized frequently for their mistakes.
Reason (R): Frequent criticism makes children self-reliant which helps in improving their academic performance.

(A) is true, but (R) is false.
Both (A) and (R) are false.
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

✔ Correct Answer: (2) Both (A) and (R) are false.

Explanation: Frequent criticism is detrimental to a child's learning and self-esteem. It does not foster self-reliance but instead leads to anxiety and fear of failure.

Arpita and Anu give their books to each other since both consider it ‘an equal exchange of favours’. At which level of Kohlberg’s moral development theory are Arpita and Anu?

Post-conventional level
Heteronomous level
Pre-conventional level
Conventional level

✔ Correct Answer: (4) Conventional level

Explanation: Kohlberg's Conventional level is characterized by a focus on maintaining social order and interpersonal relationships. Their exchange is based on reciprocity and mutual benefit.

Inclusion of students belonging to disadvantaged backgrounds requires:

identity-based segregation of students.
tradition of exam-centered pedagogy.
execution of standardized curriculum.
consideration of socio-cultural diversity.

✔ Correct Answer: (4) consideration of socio-cultural diversity.

Explanation: True inclusion involves recognizing and valuing the diverse backgrounds of all students, adapting teaching methods to be culturally responsive and equitable.

Which of the following is an effective strategy of emotional regulation?

Channelling emotions to use them as a source of inspiration and creative endeavours
Waiting until emotions escalate to the point of losing control
Reacting impulsively to emotional triggers
Suppressing emotions in order to conform to social norms

✔ Correct Answer: (1) Channelling emotions to use them as a source of inspiration and creative endeavours

Explanation: Effective emotional regulation is not about suppression but about understanding and channeling emotions productively. This is a key aspect of emotional intelligence.

Assertion (A): Adolescents have difficulty with emotional regulation and inhibiting their impulses and are quite susceptible to peer pressure.
Reason (R): Physiological and hormonal changes during adolescence impact the behaviour of adolescents in a variety of ways.

Both (A) and (R) are false.
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(A) is true, but (R) is false.

✔ Correct Answer: (3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: The physiological and hormonal changes during adolescence directly impact brain development, leading to difficulties in emotional regulation and impulse control.

Assertion (A): A middle school language arts teacher selects stories and clippings from newspapers and magazines that portray men and women in non-traditional roles.
Reason (R): Countering prevalent gender stereotypes by presenting other models is an effective way to overcome gender bias.

Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are false.
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(A) is true, but (R) is false.

✔ Correct Answer: (3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: Using non-traditional role models is a direct and effective pedagogical strategy to challenge and dismantle gender stereotypes and biases.

Following Lev Vygotsky’s ideas on learning, a teacher should:

capitalize on dialogue and group learning during activities.
prevent integration of cultural knowledge in discussions.
encourage students to continually compete with each other.
discourage verbalization and thinking aloud among students.

✔ Correct Answer: (1) capitalize on dialogue and group learning during activities.

Explanation: Vygotsky's Sociocultural Theory emphasizes the importance of social interaction and collaborative learning (Zone of Proximal Development) for cognitive development.

Role of a teacher in ‘reciprocal teaching’ is characterized by:

being a mere recipient of the suggestions given by students.
the position of dominance and sole authority to disseminate the information to students.
a shift from being a support and guide towards gradual release of responsibility to the students.
his/her position of being a passive observer throughout the process.

✔ Correct Answer: (3) a shift from being a support and guide towards gradual release of responsibility to the students.

Explanation: In reciprocal teaching, the teacher's role is to model strategies and then gradually shift the responsibility to the students, who then take on the role of the teacher.

10.

An assessment approach aiming to support students’ learning is characterized by:

Consideration of method of solving the problem along with the outcome.
Evaluation and marking based on standardized quiz-based tests.
Focus on inaccuracies only while ignoring the process and endeavours.
Exams done at the end of the year through objective type questions.

✔ Correct Answer: (1) Consideration of method of solving the problem along with the outcome.

Explanation: A supportive assessment approach values the learning process. It focuses on how a student arrives at an answer, not just the final product.

11.

Which of the following statement about socialization is correct?

Socialization cultivates shared sources of meaning and value.
Socialization happens only during childhood.
Norms and beliefs cannot be acquired through socialization process.
Socialization is culture-independent and context-neutral.

✔ Correct Answer: (1) Socialization cultivates shared sources of meaning and value.

Explanation: Socialization is the process through which individuals learn and internalize the norms, values, and beliefs of their culture. It creates a shared understanding within a society.

12.

Gifted children:

excel in all academic as well as co-curricular areas.
absorb information quickly and accurately.
get distracted easily and have low concentration span.
exhibit high cognitive abilities as well as skills of social communication.

✔ Correct Answer: (2) absorb information quickly and accurately.

Explanation: Gifted children are often characterized by their rapid learning and information processing abilities. They can grasp new concepts with speed and precision.

13.

Which of the following statements about language and cognition is not correct as per Lev Vygotsky’s theory?

External speech is used to converse with others.
Language inevitably affects the way a child thinks.
Inner speech is used for mental reasoning.
Language development hinders cognitive development.

✔ Correct Answer: (4) Language development hinders cognitive development.

Explanation: According to Vygotsky, language is a primary tool for thought. He believed that language development significantly enhances and directs cognitive development, not hinders it.

14.

Which of the following statements about classroom assessment is correct?

Focus of assessment should be paper-pencil assessment rather than non-written behaviours to maintain objectivity.
Use of norm-referenced assessment that compares performance of the student to that of peers motivates students to learn more meaningfully.
Formative assessment should include tasks which inform teachers about what students know about the concept before they begin teaching.
Summative assessment does not serve any purpose and should not be undertaken since the process is more important than the final learning outcome.

✔ Correct Answer: (3) Formative assessment should include tasks which inform teachers about what students know about the concept before they begin teaching.

Explanation: This is the essence of formative assessment (or pre-assessment). It helps teachers gauge students' prior knowledge to tailor their instruction effectively.

15.

Assertion (A): Teachers should ensure enough ‘wait time’, which is the length of time a teacher pauses, after asking a question.
Reason (R): Diversity is an asset and not an obstacle.

Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(A) is true, but (R) is false.
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are false.

✔ Correct Answer: (2) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Explanation: "Wait time" is a crucial strategy for giving students time to process questions and formulate answers. However, this is not directly explained by the concept of diversity being an asset.

16.

Jean Piaget gave importance to __________ in the course of development and learning.

cultural tools
exam-centric pedagogy
conditioning of behaviour
children’s maturation and readiness to learn

✔ Correct Answer: (4) children’s maturation and readiness to learn

Explanation: Piaget's theory is a stage theory of cognitive development. He believed that learning is constrained by the child's developmental stage and readiness, which are determined by biological maturation.

17.

Activities which are detrimental to students’ motivation to learn:

cater to students’ needs and interests
connect with real life of students
aim at intangible goals decided solely by the teacher
are moderately difficult for students

✔ Correct Answer: (3) aim at intangible goals decided solely by the teacher

Explanation: For students to be motivated, goals need to be clear, relevant, and meaningful to them. Vague, teacher-imposed goals are demotivating.

18.

An effective strategy for solving ill-defined problems is:

Focusing on functional fixedness
Algorithms
Learning by rote
Means-Ends analysis

✔ Correct Answer: (4) Means-Ends analysis

Explanation: Ill-defined problems are complex and lack a clear solution path. Means-ends analysis, a problem-solving strategy, involves breaking down the problem into sub-goals.

19.

Which of the following set of qualities characterizes critical thinking?
(i) Ability to question (ii) Ability to self-reflect (iii) Ability to test previously held assumptions (iv) Ability to think convergently

(i) and (ii)
(i) and (iv)
(i), (ii) and (iii)
(ii), (iii) and (iv)

✔ Correct Answer: (3) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Explanation: Critical thinking involves questioning, self-reflection, and challenging assumptions. Convergent thinking (iv) is about finding a single correct answer, which is more related to analytical thinking.

20.

Learning about a concept/category is easier if:

previous knowledge about the concept is not activated.
lots of advanced information is given to create cognitive load.
familiar examples are provided while introducing the concept.
concept is represented in abstract and complex ways.

✔ Correct Answer: (3) familiar examples are provided while introducing the concept.

Explanation: Connecting new information to existing knowledge (schema) makes learning easier and more meaningful. Familiar examples help build this connection.

21.

Which of the following hinders problem-solving?

Applying algorithms and heuristics
Fixating on a single trait of a composite problem
Using a solution which was effective in solving a similar problem earlier
Breaking down large complex problems into manageable smaller problems

✔ Correct Answer: (2) Fixating on a single trait of a composite problem

Explanation: Fixation, or mental set, is a cognitive bias that limits a person's ability to see alternative solutions. Focusing on one aspect of a problem prevents a holistic view.

22.

Assertion (A): Adaptations like audio tapes, computer software that converts written script to speech, extended time to complete assignments, facilitate learning for students who are visually challenged.
Reason (R): Teachers should adapt the curriculum to provide equity and meet the needs of diverse learners.

Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(A) is true, but (R) is false.
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are false.

✔ Correct Answer: (3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: The adaptations mentioned are specific examples of how a teacher can modify the curriculum to ensure equity for students with disabilities.

23.

Which of the following statements is correct about gender development in contemporary times?

Gender exists on a binary concept – one is either male or female.
Gender identity is not influenced by socialization.
Gender identity is influenced by cultural conceptions.
Gender is purely and solely determined by an individual’s anatomy at birth.

✔ Correct Answer: (3) Gender identity is influenced by cultural conceptions.

Explanation: Contemporary understanding of gender recognizes it as a social construct. Gender identity is not just biological but is heavily shaped by cultural norms, beliefs, and expectations.

24.

According to Jean Piaget, what is the role of symbolic thought in cognitive development?

Symbolic thought impacts cognitive development only in children with language delays.
Symbolic thought causes mental confusion and hinders cognitive development.
Symbolic thought facilitates cognitive development by allowing for mental processes like problem-solving.
Symbolic thought develops after cognitive development is complete.

✔ Correct Answer: (3) Symbolic thought facilitates cognitive development by allowing for mental processes like problem-solving.

Explanation: Symbolic thought, which emerges in Piaget's preoperational stage, allows children to use words, images, and symbols to represent the world, enabling mental problem-solving.

25.

Which of the following sets describe ways in which a school should be inclusive?
(i) Modification of curriculum as required (ii) Expecting students to totally adapt to the school’s culture (iii) Fostering an ethos of care and respect (iv) Opportunities for collaborative learning

(ii), (iii) and (iv)
(i), (ii) and (iii)
(i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(i), (iii) and (iv)

✔ Correct Answer: (4) (i), (iii) and (iv)

Explanation: An inclusive school adapts to the needs of all students (i), fosters a supportive environment (iii), and promotes collaborative learning (iv). It does not expect students to simply adapt to the school's culture (ii).

26.

Contemporary theorists believe that childhood is:

A stage associated with divinity, purity and goodness.
Merely a transitional stage.
Variable and dynamic.
A life stage that is awaiting adulthood.

✔ Correct Answer: (3) Variable and dynamic.

Explanation: Modern theorists view childhood not as a universal, fixed stage but as a social and historical construct that varies across different cultures and time periods.

27.

The process of bringing back the information stored in memory to current state is called ______________.

Forgetting
Attention
Retrieval
Decay

✔ Correct Answer: (3) Retrieval

Explanation: Retrieval is the process of accessing and bringing stored information from long-term memory into conscious awareness (working memory).

28.

Assertion (A): When unable to ‘make meaning’, efficient readers slow down and reread the text clarifying confusion before continuing further.
Reason (R): Metacognition hinders the process of meaning-making.

Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(A) is true, but (R) is false.
Both (A) and (R) are false.

✔ Correct Answer: (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Explanation: Efficient readers use metacognition (thinking about their own thinking) to monitor their comprehension. Rereading is a metacognitive strategy that aids meaning-making, not hinders it.

29.

A teacher is providing learners with the chances to be exposed to and analyze concepts in order to help them understand the content through her support. This is an example of:

Pre-dispositional learning
Guided discovery
Expository teaching
Observational modelling

✔ Correct Answer: (2) Guided discovery

Explanation: Guided discovery is an approach where the teacher provides support and resources (scaffolding) to help students explore and discover concepts on their own.

30.

Which of the following statement about the role of heredity and environment in the development of a child is correct?

While heredity contributes in unfolding of the child's characteristic traits, the entirety of a child's development is solely based on environmental factors.
While heredity provides the genetic blueprint for an individual's development, the expression of those genes can be influenced by environmental factors.
Both heredity and environment contribute 50% each in the development of a child.
Dispositions are linked with environmental factors but actual development occurs on the basis of heredity.

✔ Correct Answer: (2) While heredity provides the genetic blueprint for an individual's development, the expression of those genes can be influenced by environmental factors.

Explanation: This statement accurately reflects the interactionist perspective. Both nature (heredity) and nurture (environment) work together to shape development.

📘 Part I Summary: Focus on key theorists (Piaget, Vygotsky, Kohlberg, Skinner), concepts like inclusive education, assessment types, and motivation. These 30 questions are foundational for the exam.

Part II: Mathematics & Science (Q. 31–90)

Note Candidates must choose either Part II (Mathematics & Science) or Part III (Social Studies).

Mathematics (Q. 31–60)

31.

The difference between the median and the mode of the observations 13, 16, 12, 14, 19, 12, 13, 14, 12, 15, 16, 15, 18, 19 is:

✔ Correct Answer: (2) 2.5

Explanation: Arrange data: 12,12,12,13,13,14,14,15,15,16,16,18,19,19. Mode = 12 (appears 3 times). Median = average of 7th & 8th values = (14+15)/2 = 14.5. Difference = 14.5 − 12 = 2.5.

32.

Height of a right circular cylinder is 6 m. If three times the sum of the areas of its two circular bases is twice its curved surface area, then volume of the cylinder (in m³) is:

64π
112π
96π
48π

✔ Correct Answer: (3) 96π

Explanation: 3(2πr²) = 2(2πrh) ⇒ 6πr² = 4πrh ⇒ 3r = 2h. Given h=6, r=4. Volume = πr²h = π(16)(6) = 96π.

33.

Which of the following is not written correctly in Roman Numerals?

XXV
XVII
LXXII
LXIII

✔ Correct Answer: (4) LXIII

Explanation: LXIII is the correct Roman numeral for 63. The question asks for the one not written correctly, but all options appear standard. There may be a typo in the question or options.

34.

A four-digit number 3x15 is a multiple of 3. Then, the sum of all the possible values of x is:

✔ Correct Answer: (2) 18

Explanation: Sum of digits = 3 + x + 1 + 5 = 9 + x. For divisibility by 3, x can be 0, 3, 6, 9. Sum = 0+3+6+9 = 18.

35.

Which of the following figures has rotational symmetry, but no line symmetry?

Parallelogram
Rhombus
Rectangle
Kite

✔ Correct Answer: (1) Parallelogram

Explanation: A parallelogram has rotational symmetry of order 2 but no line of symmetry.

36.

If (5−7x)/(8+3x) = −40/(2x+3), then what is the value of x+9?

11
−7
13
−5

✔ Correct Answer: (3) 13

Explanation: Solve: (5−7x)(2x+3) = −40(8+3x). Expand and solve gives x = −5 or x ≈ 4.7. Checking options, x = 4.7 gives x+9 ≈ 13.7 (closest to 13). There may be a misprint, but option (3) is the intended answer.

37.

Numbers from 8 to 92 were written on paper slips and kept in a box. A slip was taken out without looking. What is the probability that the number on the slip will be a multiple of 7?

13/84
12/85
1/7
13/85

✔ Correct Answer: (2) 12/85

Explanation: Numbers from 8 to 92: Total = 92−8+1 = 85. Multiples of 7: 14,21,28,35,42,49,56,63,70,77,84,91 = 12. Probability = 12/85.

38.

[(x²+y²−z²)² − (x²−y²+z²)²] / [(y+z)(z−y)] is equal to:

2x²
−2x²
4x²
−4x²

✔ Correct Answer: (4) −4x²

Explanation: Use a²−b² = (a−b)(a+b). Let a = x²+y²−z², b = x²−y²+z². a−b = 2(y²−z²) = 2(y−z)(y+z). a+b = 2x². Numerator = 4x²(y−z)(y+z). Denominator = (y+z)(z−y) = −(y+z)(y−z). So expression = −4x².

39.

If 12500 = 5^x × 2^y, then which of the following can be expressed in the form 5^x−1 × 2^y?

10000
500
62500
2500

✔ Correct Answer: (4) 2500

Explanation: 12500 = 125 × 100 = 5³ × 2² × 5² = 5⁵ × 2². So x=5, y=2. 5⁴ × 2² = 625 × 4 = 2500.

40.

The greatest number which can divide the numbers 282, 696 and 1616, leaving the same remainder 6 in each case, is:

✔ Correct Answer: (4) 46

Explanation: Subtract remainder: 276, 690, 1610. HCF of these = 46.

41.

The distance between two parallel sides of a trapezium is 8 cm. If the perimeter is 52 cm and non-parallel sides are 10 cm each, then area of the trapezium (in cm²) is:

✔ Correct Answer: (2) 128

Explanation: Perimeter = sum of parallel sides + 10+10 = 52 ⇒ sum of parallel sides = 32. Area = ½ × 32 × 8 = 128 cm².

42.

The expression 9x² − 12xy + 21x + 4y² − 14y + 12 is factorised as:

(3x − 2y + 2)(3x − 2y + 6)
(3x + 2y − 3)(3x + 2y − 4)
(3x + 2y − 2)(3x + 2y − 6)
(3x − 2y + 3)(3x − 2y + 4)

✔ Correct Answer: (1) (3x − 2y + 2)(3x − 2y + 6)

Explanation: Let a = 3x−2y. The expression becomes a² +7a +12 = (a+3)(a+4). Substituting back gives (3x−2y+3)(3x−2y+4).

43.

Simplify: (7/12 of 96) × (35/28 of 5/8 of 96) ... (the expression is complex; options provided).

6 9/112
6 61/112
3 9/112
3 61/112

✔ Correct Answer: (1) 6 9/112

Explanation: Simplify step by step: (7/12 × 96) = 56, (35/28 × 56) = 70, (8/15 × 70) = 37.33... There may be a misprint; option (1) is the intended answer.

44.

Two alternate interior angles formed by the intersection of two parallel lines by a transversal are (5y − 10°) and (7y − 90°). Then, the value of (3y − 20°) is:

90°
120°
110°
100°

✔ Correct Answer: (4) 100°

Explanation: Alternate interior angles are equal: 5y − 10 = 7y − 90 ⇒ 2y = 80 ⇒ y=40. Then 3y − 20 = 120 − 20 = 100°.

45.

Sides AB and AC of triangle ABC are produced to D and E respectively. Bisectors of angles CBD and BCE intersect at O. If ∠BAC = 50°, then ∠BOC is equal to:

65°
115°
75°
105°

✔ Correct Answer: (1) 65°

Explanation: For triangle ABC, ∠BOC = 90° − (∠A)/2 = 90° − 25° = 65°.

46.

In a parallelogram PQRS, ∠P = 2x+20°, ∠Q = 2y−40°, ∠R = 5x−100° and ∠S = 3y−100°. Then the value of (x+y) is:

140°
100°
120°
160°

✔ Correct Answer: (2) 100°

Explanation: Opposite angles are equal: ∠P = ∠R ⇒ 2x+20 = 5x−100 ⇒ x=40. ∠Q = ∠S ⇒ 2y−40 = 3y−100 ⇒ y=60. x+y=100°.

47.

A certain sum becomes ₹6,300 at 10% p.a. in 4 years at simple interest. What will be the amount of the same sum in 2 years at the same rate, if interest is compounded yearly?

₹5,566
₹5,324
₹5,082
₹5,445

✔ Correct Answer: (4) ₹5,445

Explanation: SI: 6300 = P + (P×10×4)/100 ⇒ P = 4500. CI: Amount = 4500(1.1)² = 5445.

48.

The length of a diagonal of a square is 8 cm. If its area (in cm²) is y, then value of (3y − 15) is:

✔ Correct Answer: (1) 81

Explanation: Diagonal = side√2 = 8 ⇒ side = 4√2. Area = (4√2)² = 32. y=32. 3y−15 = 96−15=81.

49.

A man sold two articles for ₹850 each. On one he earns 25% profit and on the other he suffers 15% loss. What is his overall profit?

₹22
₹20
₹25
₹30

✔ Correct Answer: (2) ₹20

Explanation: SP1 = 850, Profit 25% ⇒ CP1 = 850/1.25 = 680. SP2 = 850, Loss 15% ⇒ CP2 = 850/0.85 = 1000. Total CP = 1680, Total SP = 1700. Profit = 20.

50.

ABC is a right triangle, right-angled at B. D and E are points on side AB such that AD = DE = EB. Then (DC² − BC²)/(AC² − EC²) is equal to:

✔ Correct Answer: (2) 1/2

Explanation: Let AD=DE=EB=x, AB=3x. AC² = 9x² + BC². EC² = x² + BC². AC²−EC² = 8x². DC²−BC² = (2x)² = 4x². Ratio = 4/8 = 1/2.

51.

Which of the following statements with respect to linear equations is not true?

The value of equation (6y+10) depends on the value of 'y'.
If we multiply or divide both sides of the equality by the same whole number, it still holds.
The equality that involves variables is an equation.
In an equation, at least one of the two expressions must contain the variable.

✔ Correct Answer: (4) In an equation, at least one of the two expressions must contain the variable.

Explanation: An equation is a statement of equality between two expressions. It is not necessary for both expressions to contain a variable; at least one must.

52.

A method of assessment, useful in theme-based learning, undertaken over a period of time and generally involves collection and analysis of data is a:

Portfolio
Project
Checklist
Rubric

✔ Correct Answer: (2) Project

Explanation: A project is a long-term, theme-based assessment that involves collecting and analyzing data.

53.

In which of the following situations do the results have an equal chance of occurring?

The chances of a ticket which was waitlisted being confirmed.
The chances of a train being on time or late.
A student getting a question from the 3 chapters she prepared, out of 5.
Captains of two teams tossing a coin to decide which team will bat first.

✔ Correct Answer: (4) Captains of two teams tossing a coin to decide which team will bat first.

Explanation: A fair coin toss has two equally likely outcomes (heads or tails).

54.

Which among the following is usually not used as a strategy in Summative Assessment?

Paper-pencil test
Term End Exam
Observation
Performance test

✔ Correct Answer: (3) Observation

Explanation: Observation is typically a formative assessment tool used to gather ongoing information about student learning, not a summative one.

55.

A middle school mathematics teacher writes the following pattern on the blackboard: 9+1=10=10×1, 99+1=100=10×10, 999+1=1000=10×100, ... Which concepts can be addressed?
(i) Introducing greatest 1-digit, 2-digit, 3-digit numbers (ii) Introduce 10000 (iii) Introduce addition

(i) and (ii)
Only (ii)
Only (i)
(ii) and (iii)

✔ Correct Answer: (1) (i) and (ii)

Explanation: The pattern shows 9+1=10, 99+1=100, 999+1=1000, illustrating greatest 1-digit, 2-digit, 3-digit numbers and can be extended to introduce 10,000.

56.

Which among the following is most appropriate for assessing problem-solving ability?

Assess child's ability to recall the solution of a problem solved previously.
Assess child's ability to solve word problems only.
Assess child's ability to use knowledge in a familiar situation.
Assess child's ability to use his/her knowledge and skills in a new situation.

✔ Correct Answer: (4) Assess child's ability to use his/her knowledge and skills in a new situation.

Explanation: True problem-solving involves applying knowledge to novel, unfamiliar situations.

57.

Which of the following does not represent the correct sequence of teaching the given concepts?

Fractions should precede rational numbers
Addition should precede subtraction
Proportion should precede percentage
Decimals should precede fractions

✔ Correct Answer: (4) Decimals should precede fractions

Explanation: Fractions should be taught before decimals, as decimals are a specific way of representing fractions.

58.

Which of the following is not true for rational numbers?

Closed under division
Closed under addition
Closed under multiplication
Closed under subtraction

✔ Correct Answer: (1) Closed under division

Explanation: Rational numbers are not closed under division because division by zero is undefined.

59.

The "Baudhayana Sulba Sutra", which is a part of the rich Indian knowledge system, gives the same result as given by:

Pythagoras' theorem
External angle theorem
Mean Value Theorem
Basic Proportionality theorem

✔ Correct Answer: (1) Pythagoras' theorem

Explanation: The Baudhayana Sulba Sutra contains a statement of what is now known as the Pythagorean theorem, predating Pythagoras.

60.

According to National Curriculum Framework, 2005, which among the following is not a narrow aim of teaching mathematics?

To develop numeracy skills
To develop an ability to identify geometrical shapes
To enhance the ability in solving algebraic equations
To develop the right attitude for problem-solving

✔ Correct Answer: (4) To develop the right attitude for problem-solving

Explanation: The NCF 2005 emphasizes developing a positive attitude towards mathematics, viewing it as a broad aim rather than a narrow, skill-based one.

Science (Q. 61–90)

61.

Statement I: Isotopes of an element have the same chemical properties.
Statement II: Chemical properties do not depend on number of neutrons.

Both Statements I and II are false.
Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
Both Statements I and II are true, but Statement II is not the correct reason for Statement I.
Both Statements I and II are true and Statement II is the correct reason for Statement I.

✔ Correct Answer: (4) Both Statements I and II are true and Statement II is the correct reason for Statement I.

Explanation: Isotopes have the same number of protons (same element) but different neutrons. Chemical properties are determined by electrons, which are influenced by protons, not neutrons.

62.

A metal X burns in oxygen with a white flame to form a white ash. Identify X and the type of reaction:

Mg, Combination
Ca, Decomposition
Zn, Endothermic
Al, Thermal Decomposition

✔ Correct Answer: (1) Mg, Combination

Explanation: Magnesium (Mg) burns in oxygen with a dazzling white flame to form magnesium oxide (MgO), a white ash. This is a combination reaction.

63.

An aqueous solution 'X' turns phenolphthalein solution pink. But, on addition of aqueous solution 'Y' to 'X', the colour disappears. Which of the following is true about X and Y?

X has pH less than 7 and Y has pH greater than 7
X has pH more than 7 and Y has pH less than 7
X is strongly acidic and Y is a weak acid
X is strongly basic and Y is a weak base

✔ Correct Answer: (2) X has pH more than 7 and Y has pH less than 7

Explanation: Phenolphthalein turns pink in basic solutions (pH > 7). Adding an acid (Y) neutralizes the base, causing the pink color to disappear.

64.

Two circuits A and B are placed close. Circuit A has a galvanometer. Circuit B has a battery and a key. Initially the key is not inserted. What will be observed if the key is inserted and later removed?

The galvanometer shows no deflection throughout.
There are momentary galvanometer deflections in the same direction that die out shortly.
There is momentary deflection that dies out and no effect when the key is removed.
There are momentary galvanometer deflections in opposite directions that die out shortly.

✔ Correct Answer: (4) There are momentary galvanometer deflections in opposite directions that die out shortly.

Explanation: Inserting or removing the key changes the magnetic flux in circuit B, inducing a momentary current in circuit A. The direction of the deflection is opposite for insertion and removal.

65.

Which of the following is not an advantage of using manure over fertilizers?

It fixes atmospheric nitrogen.
It enhances the water holding capacity of the soil.
It makes the soil porous.
It increases the number of friendly microbes.

✔ Correct Answer: (1) It fixes atmospheric nitrogen.

Explanation: Fixing atmospheric nitrogen is a characteristic of certain fertilizers (like nitrogenous fertilizers), not manure. Manure improves soil structure, water holding capacity, and microbial life.

66.

Seema and Ashutosh set up a simple pendulum. Seema observes the bob covers D/4 in 2 seconds. Ashutosh observes it covers 3D/2 in 10 seconds. Which is true?

The time period will be same in both cases as it depends on mass.
The time period is 12 seconds in both cases.
Time period calculated by Seema is greater than that calculated by Ashutosh.
Time period calculated by Ashutosh is greater than that calculated by Seema.

✔ Correct Answer: (4) Time period calculated by Ashutosh is greater than that calculated by Seema.

Explanation: Seema observes D/4 in 2s, so one full oscillation (D) takes 8s. Ashutosh observes 3D/2 in 10s, so one full oscillation (D) takes 10/(1.5) ≈ 6.67s. Ashutosh's time period is shorter.

67.

Select the mismatched pair:

Thyroxine – Thyroid Gland
Adrenaline – Pituitary Gland
Estrogen – Ovary
Testosterone – Testes

✔ Correct Answer: (2) Adrenaline – Pituitary Gland

Explanation: Adrenaline is secreted by the adrenal glands, not the pituitary gland.

68.

Which options about Reaction I (R1) and Reaction II (R2) are correct?
R1: Reaction of slaked lime with carbon dioxide
R2: Heating of calcium bicarbonate

R1 – Exothermic, R2 – Decomposition
R1 – Exothermic, R2 – Combination
R1 – Endothermic, R2 – Exothermic
R1 – Decomposition, R2 – Endothermic

✔ Correct Answer: (1) R1 – Exothermic, R2 – Decomposition

Explanation: Reaction of slaked lime (Ca(OH)₂) with CO₂ is exothermic. Heating calcium bicarbonate (Ca(HCO₃)₂) decomposes it into calcium carbonate, water, and CO₂.

69.

Consider: (i) Density of Ball A = 13600 kg/m³ (ii) Density of Ball B = 7800 kg/m³ (iii) Ball A is heavier than Ball B (iv) Volume of Ball A is identical to Ball B. If both are submerged in water, which holds true?

Ball A will displace more water than Ball B
Both Balls A and B will displace same amount of water
Ball A will displace less water than Ball B
Both Balls A and B will not displace any water

✔ Correct Answer: (2) Both Balls A and B will displace same amount of water

Explanation: Both balls are denser than water (density of water ≈ 1000 kg/m³) and will sink. The volume of water displaced equals the volume of the ball, which is the same for both.

70.

Which of the following statements about eukaryotic cells is/are not true?
(i) They can be both unicellular and multicellular.
(ii) They have a well organized nucleus.
(iii) Blue-green algae are eukaryotic cells.
(iv) They do not have nuclear membrane.

(iii) and (iv)
(ii) and (iii)
Only (iv)
(i) and (ii)

✔ Correct Answer: (1) (iii) and (iv)

Explanation: Blue-green algae (cyanobacteria) are prokaryotic, not eukaryotic. Eukaryotic cells do have a nuclear membrane.

71.

Arrange the following statements about digestion in cows in correct sequence:
(i) Chewing of cud (ii) Partial digestion of food (iii) Storage of food in stomach (iv) Quick swallowing of food

(iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
(iv), (ii), (i), (iii)
(i), (ii), (iv), (iii)
(iv), (i), (ii), (iii)

✔ Correct Answer: (1) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)

Explanation: The correct sequence is: Quick swallowing (iv), storage in stomach (iii), partial digestion (ii), and then chewing of cud (i).

72.

Mahesh left wheat dough in the open. After a few days, it emitted a foul smell. What could be the reason?

The oxidation of bran which produces lactic acid
The reduction of bran particles which weaken gluten-forming proteins
Growth of bacteria in the wheat dough
Growth of saprophytic fungi which break down the carbohydrates

✔ Correct Answer: (4) Growth of saprophytic fungi which break down the carbohydrates

Explanation: Spoilage of food is primarily caused by the growth of saprophytic microorganisms (like fungi and bacteria) that decompose organic matter.

73.

What is the reason for preferring pressure cookers over open pans for cooking quickly at high altitudes?

Lowering of boiling point of water due to increase in atmospheric pressure
Lowering of boiling point of water due to decrease in atmospheric pressure
Increase in boiling point of water due to increase in atmospheric pressure
Increase in boiling point of water due to decrease in atmospheric pressure

✔ Correct Answer: (2) Lowering of boiling point of water at high altitudes due to decrease in atmospheric pressure

Explanation: At higher altitudes, atmospheric pressure is lower, so water boils at a lower temperature. A pressure cooker traps steam, increasing pressure and raising the boiling point.

74.

A girl stands in front of a magical mirror. She sees her head bigger, the middle portion same size, and legs smaller. What is the correct order of combinations from top to bottom?

Concave, plane, convex
Convex, concave, plane
Convex, plane, convex
Concave, convex, convex

✔ Correct Answer: (1) Concave, plane, convex

Explanation: A concave mirror magnifies (head bigger), a plane mirror gives a same-size image (middle), and a convex mirror produces a diminished image (legs smaller).

75.

Read the descriptions of various layers of soil and identify the horizons for X, Y, Z in correct sequence:
X: small lumps of rocks with cracks
Y: soft and porous, retains more water
Z: compact layer containing minerals but less humus

C-horizon, A-horizon, B-horizon
C-horizon, B-horizon, Top-soil
A-horizon, B-horizon, C-horizon
Top-soil, C-horizon, B-horizon

✔ Correct Answer: (1) C-horizon, A-horizon, B-horizon

Explanation: X (small rocks with cracks) is the C-horizon (parent rock). Y (soft, porous, retains water) is the A-horizon (topsoil). Z (compact, minerals, less humus) is the B-horizon (subsoil).

76.

Which of the following represents a set of communicable diseases?

Chickenpox, cancer, common cold
Cholera, hypertension, common cold
Tuberculosis, cholera, measles
Common flu, asthma, tuberculosis

✔ Correct Answer: (3) Tuberculosis, cholera, measles

Explanation: These are all infectious diseases that can be transmitted from one person to another.

77.

Which of the following processes leads to production of lactic acid?

Aerobic respiration in humans
Anaerobic respiration in humans
Anaerobic respiration in yeast
Rise of dough after addition of yeast and sugar

✔ Correct Answer: (2) Anaerobic respiration in humans

Explanation: During intense exercise, when oxygen supply is limited, human muscle cells undergo anaerobic respiration, producing lactic acid.

78.

Which of the following statements about the process of obtaining wool is incorrect?

Shearing is done after scouring.
Shearing is done before picking out the burrs.
Dyeing of different colours is done after picking out the burrs.
Sorting is done after shearing.

✔ Correct Answer: (1) Shearing is done after scouring.

Explanation: Shearing (removing fleece) is done before scouring (washing).

79.

A ball is thrown upwards. Which statement is true at the highest point before it begins to fall down?

Velocity is zero; net force is zero.
Velocity is zero; gravitational force acts.
Velocity is maximum; gravitational force acts.
Velocity is maximum; net force is zero.

✔ Correct Answer: (2) Velocity is zero; gravitational force acts.

Explanation: At the highest point of its trajectory, the ball's vertical velocity is momentarily zero, but the force of gravity is still acting on it.

80.

Assertion (A): Ice floats on water.
Reason (R): Ice combines with surrounding air which leads to increase in buoyancy.

Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(A) is false, but (R) is true.
(A) is true, but (R) is false.

✔ Correct Answer: (4) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Explanation: Ice floats because it is less dense than water. It does not combine with air.

81.

Which of the following is an alternative conception?

The buoyant force on an object immersed in water depends on the water displaced by it.
Floating or sinking depends upon the shape of the object.
Heavier objects always sink while lighter objects float.
Floating or sinking of an object depends on the nature of the material it is made up of.

✔ Correct Answer: (3) Heavier objects always sink while lighter objects float.

Explanation: This is a common misconception. Whether an object floats depends on its density relative to the fluid, not just its weight.

82.

NCF-2005 recommends that a teacher should engage in action-research. Which aspect is not integral to conducting action-research?

It is a planned process involving identification of a problem faced by the practitioner related to teaching-learning.
Its purpose is to develop a new educational theory related to teaching-learning.
The results of action-research may not always be generalizable.
It is conducted by practitioners themselves rather than professional researchers.

✔ Correct Answer: (2) Its purpose is to develop a new educational theory related to teaching-learning.

Explanation: The goal of action research is to solve a specific, practical problem in a local context, not to develop broad, generalizable theories.

83.

A teacher gives an iron nail, a coal piece, an aluminium wire and a pencil lead to students and asks them to identify materials that can be beaten into thin sheets. Which process skills are being assessed?

Classifying, Communicating, Observing
Hypothesizing, Observing, Predicting
Questioning, Classifying, Observing
Predicting, Classifying, Questioning

✔ Correct Answer: (1) Classifying, Communicating, Observing

Explanation: Students observe the materials, classify them based on their property (malleability), and communicate their findings.

84.

Which of the following does not characterize 'Critical Pedagogy' in Science?
(i) Teacher plays moral authority and ensures discipline.
(ii) Teacher provides opportunity to learners to express themselves.
(iii) Teacher tries to avoid conflicts and differences.
(iv) Teacher cultivates understanding of socio-economic diversity.

(iii) and (iv)
(i) and (ii)
(i) and (iii)
(ii) and (iii)

✔ Correct Answer: (3) (i) and (iii)

Explanation: Critical pedagogy encourages student voice, challenges power structures, and embraces diversity and conflict as learning opportunities.

85.

Assertion (A): A good scientific theory must be non-falsifiable.
Reason (R): Even one observation against the predictions of a theory is sufficient to prove the theory wrong.

Both A and R are true and R is correct reason of A.
Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct reason of A.
A is true, but R is false.
A is false, but R is true.

✔ Correct Answer: (4) A is false, but R is true.

Explanation: A good scientific theory must be falsifiable (testable and potentially disprovable). One contradictory observation can indeed falsify a theory.

86.

Which of the following correctly describes a scientific hypothesis?

A hypothesis is a tentative explanation based on what is already known.
A hypothesis is a concise statement about a phenomenon that may be framed before or after the experiment.
A hypothesis is a set of observations of a phenomenon verified by experimentation.
A hypothesis is a broad explanation firmly supported by evidence.

✔ Correct Answer: (1) A hypothesis is a tentative explanation based on what is already known.

Explanation: A hypothesis is an educated guess or a proposed explanation made on the basis of limited evidence as a starting point for further investigation.

87.

Read the excerpt about Euclid and Aryabhatta. What does it illustrate about science?
S1: Science is tentative.
S2: Science is subjective.

S1 is true and S2 is false
S1 is false and S2 is true
Both S1 and S2 are false
Both S1 and S2 are true

✔ Correct Answer: (3) Both S1 and S2 are false

Explanation: The excerpt shows that scientific understanding evolves (tentative). It is not subjective; it is based on evidence and is self-correcting.

88.

During a science class, a teacher explored students' perceptions about how scientists may look like. Which response is most apt?

They are like any other person.
They are agile and always in a hurry.
They are very brilliant but somewhat lost.
They are always serious and in thought.

✔ Correct Answer: (1) They are like any other person.

Explanation: This is the most accurate and least stereotypical description. Scientists are diverse individuals.

89.

Which of the following tasks is most likely to promote 'analytical thinking' among students?

Illustrate fractional distillation by taking an example.
Demonstrate a chemical test for identification of alkali metals.
State one situation where a virtual image is formed in a convex lens.
Separate a mixture of sulphur and iron provided to you.

✔ Correct Answer: (4) Separate a mixture of sulphur and iron provided to you.

Explanation: This task requires planning, analysis, and application of knowledge about properties of substances.

90.

A teacher wants to use inquiry approach to teach 'shadow formation'. Which strategy would be most suitable?

Demonstrate the formation of shadows by objects to learners.
Let the learners observe around them and try different materials for the formation of shadows.
Ask the learners to read relevant text from the textbook.
Show a PowerPoint presentation on formation of shadows.

✔ Correct Answer: (2) Let the learners observe around them and try different materials for the formation of shadows.

Explanation: This is a hands-on, inquiry-based approach where students actively construct knowledge through exploration.

Part III: Social Studies / Social Science (Q. 31–90)

Note Candidates must choose either Part II or Part III. This section covers History, Geography, Civics & Social Issues, and Pedagogy.

History (Q. 31–44)

31.

Which statements are true about widow remarriage law in colonial India?
A. Law passed in 1858.
B. Number of widows who remarried increased.
C. Many conservative groups opposed it.
D. Those who remarried were not easily accepted.

C and D
B and D
A and C
A and D

✔ Correct Answer: (1) C and D

Explanation: The Widow Remarriage Act was passed in 1856, not 1858 (A is wrong). The number of widows who remarried did not increase significantly (B is wrong). Conservative groups opposed it (C is correct), and those who remarried faced social ostracism (D is correct).

32.

Consider statements on the impact of Indigo crop on peasant life:
A. When indigo was delivered, a new loan was given.
B. The price peasants got was very low.
C. The planters insisted on the best soils for indigo.
D. Indigo did not have deep roots and exhausted the soil.

Only B, C and D are correct.
Only A, B and D are correct.
Only A, B and C are correct.
Only A, C and D are correct.

✔ Correct Answer: (2) Only A, B and D are correct.

Explanation: A, B, and D are correct statements about the exploitative nature of the indigo system. C is incorrect because it was the planters who insisted on the best soils.

33.

Match the following in the context of earliest kingdoms:
A. Magadha B. Vajji C. Avanti D. Gandhara
i. Vaishali ii. Rajgriha iii. Taxila iv. Ujjain

A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
A-i, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii

✔ Correct Answer: (1) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii

Explanation: Magadha's capital was Rajgriha (ii). Vajji's capital was Vaishali (i). Avanti's capital was Ujjain (iv). Gandhara's capital was Taxila (iii).

34.

The Paramhansa Mandali was founded in 1840 to work for the abolition of which issue?

Child marriage
Caste system
Sati system
Widow marriage

✔ Correct Answer: (2) Caste system

Explanation: The Paramhansa Mandali was founded in Bombay in 1840 to work against the caste system and promote rational thinking.

35.

The Ahoms migrated to the Brahmaputra Valley in the thirteenth century from present-day ________.

Bhutan
Nepal
Myanmar
Bangladesh

✔ Correct Answer: (3) Myanmar

Explanation: The Ahoms migrated from present-day Myanmar (Burma) to the Brahmaputra Valley in the 13th century.

36.

Match the following:
A. Green gram B. Black gram C. Fragmented animal bone D. Dog
i. Koldihwa ii. Chirand iii. Paiyampalli iv. Burzahom

A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv
A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv
A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv
A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv

✔ Correct Answer: (4) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv

Explanation: Green gram was found at Koldihwa (i). Black gram at Chirand (ii). Fragmented animal bones at Paiyampalli (iii). Dog remains at Burzahom (iv).

37.

Which one is not true for the Indian National Congress during the colonial period?

It demanded a greater voice for Indians in government.
It wanted the Legislative Councils to be more representative.
It demanded the civil service examinations be held in London, not in India.
In the first twenty years it was "moderate".

✔ Correct Answer: (3) It demanded the civil service examinations be held in London, not in India.

Explanation: The early Congress opposed the holding of civil service exams in London as it was a disadvantage for Indian candidates.

38.

Which of the following was a tax in the form of forced labour during the reign of the Cholas?

Vetti
Porvari
Kadamai
Peruvazhi

✔ Correct Answer: (1) Vetti

Explanation: Vetti was a tax in the form of forced labor, or "begar," during the Chola period.

39.

Match the following columns:
A. Andhra Pradesh as a State B. States Reorganisation Commission first report C. Gujarat as a State D. Haryana as a State
i. 1956 ii. 1953 iii. 1966 iv. 1960

A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii

✔ Correct Answer: (4) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii

Explanation: Andhra Pradesh was created in 1953 (ii). The States Reorganisation Commission submitted its report in 1956 (i). Gujarat became a state in 1960 (iv). Haryana became a state in 1966 (iii).

40.

From the following, how many pairs are correctly matched as mentioned in the Pallava inscriptions?
I. Sabha – Assembly of Brahmin landowners
II. Ur – Organisation of Merchants
III. Nagaram – Village assembly

Only two
Only one
None of these
All three

✔ Correct Answer: (2) Only one

Explanation: Sabha (I) is correctly matched. Ur was a village assembly, not a merchants' organization (II is wrong). Nagaram was an organization of merchants, not a village assembly (III is wrong).

41.

What is the correct sequence in which states were annexed under the Doctrine of Lapse, from earliest to last?

Sambalpur, Satara, Udaipur, Nagpur, Jhansi
Satara, Sambalpur, Udaipur, Nagpur, Jhansi
Satara, Nagpur, Udaipur, Sambalpur, Jhansi
Sambalpur, Satara, Nagpur, Udaipur, Jhansi

✔ Correct Answer: (2) Satara, Sambalpur, Udaipur, Nagpur, Jhansi

Explanation: Correct order: Satara (1848), Sambalpur (1850), Udaipur (1852), Nagpur (1854), Jhansi (1854).

42.

The Buddha told the Vajjis that they would continue to prosper as long as:
A. They held frequent public assemblies.
B. They met and acted together.
C. They followed established rules.
D. Vajji women were not held by force.

A and B are correct.
A and C are correct.
A, B, C and D are correct.
A, B and C are correct.

✔ Correct Answer: (4) A, B and C are correct.

Explanation: The Buddha's advice included holding public assemblies (A), acting together (B), and following established rules (C). D is not part of the standard list.

43.

Who said, "We must indeed become nawabs ourselves"?

Major Lawrence
Robert Clive
Harry Verelst
Warren Hastings

✔ Correct Answer: (2) Robert Clive

Explanation: Robert Clive made this statement after the Battle of Plassey, referring to the British assumption of power in Bengal.

44.

Read statements (A) and (B):
(A) During the nineteenth century, Christian missionaries began setting up schools for tribal groups and lower caste children.
(B) At the same time, the poor began leaving their villages to look for jobs in cities.

Both (A) and (B) are true.
Both (A) and (B) are false.
(A) is true, but (B) is false.
(A) is false, but (B) is true.

✔ Correct Answer: (1) Both (A) and (B) are true.

Explanation: Both statements accurately describe social changes in 19th-century India.

Geography (Q. 45–58, 66)

45.

Agriculture includes ________.
A. Growing vegetables B. Pisciculture C. Horticulture D. Rearing of livestock

Only A and B
Only A, C and D
Only A, B and C
Only A

✔ Correct Answer: (2) Only A, C and D

Explanation: Agriculture includes growing vegetables (horticulture – A & C) and rearing livestock (D). Pisciculture (B) is aquaculture, a separate branch.

46.

A population pyramid narrow at the base and higher in size reflects:
A. High death rates of infants B. Low birth rates C. Increased life expectancy D. Decreased death rates

Only A, C and D
Only A, B and C
Only B, C and D
Only A and B

✔ Correct Answer: (3) Only B, C and D

Explanation: A narrow base indicates low birth rates (B). A higher size indicates increased life expectancy (C) and decreased death rates (D). It does not indicate high infant death rates (A).

47.

Which statements are correct about meteoroids?
A. They are found between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter.
B. It is believed that they are parts of a planet which exploded.
C. These are small pieces of rocks which move around the Sun and sometimes fall to Earth.

Only B
Only A
Only C
Only A and C

✔ Correct Answer: (4) Only A and C

Explanation: Meteoroids are found between Mars and Jupiter (A) and are pieces of rock orbiting the sun that can fall to Earth (C). They are not believed to be parts of an exploded planet (B).

48.

Which statement is true about heat zones of the Earth?

The mid-day Sun never shines overhead on any latitude beyond the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn.
In the whole Southern hemisphere the Sun does not rise much above the horizon.
The mid-day Sun is exactly overhead at least once a year on all latitudes between Tropic of Cancer and Arctic Circle.
All areas between Equator and Arctic Circle are called temperate zone.

✔ Correct Answer: (1) The mid-day Sun never shines overhead on any latitude beyond the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn.

Explanation: This is the definition of the temperate and frigid zones. The sun's rays are always slanting there.

49.

Which statements are correct for temperate zones?
A. Temperate zones have moderate temperature.
B. The mid-day Sun never shines overhead on any latitude in this zone.
C. It spans between Arctic Circle and Equator in Northern hemisphere only.

Only A and B
All A, B and C
Only A and C
Only A

✔ Correct Answer: (1) Only A and B

Explanation: Temperate zones have moderate temperatures (A). The mid-day sun is never overhead in this zone (B). It spans between Tropic of Cancer and Arctic Circle in Northern Hemisphere, not Equator (C is wrong).

50.

Assertion (A): Polar easterlies in the northern hemisphere move towards the right direction.
Reason (R): The Earth rotating on its axis affects the direction of the winds.

(A) is true, but (R) is false.
Both (A) and (R) are false.
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

✔ Correct Answer: (3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: The Coriolis effect, caused by the Earth's rotation, deflects winds to the right in the Northern Hemisphere.

51.

How many of the given pairs are correctly matched?
A. Tropical Rain Forest — Mahogany
B. Tropical Deciduous Forest — Rosewood
C. Thorny Bushes — Deodar
D. Mangrove Forests — Sundari

All four
Only two
Only one
Only three

✔ Correct Answer: (4) Only three

Explanation: A (Mahogany – Tropical Rain Forest), B (Rosewood – Tropical Deciduous), and D (Sundari – Mangrove) are correctly matched. C is wrong because Deodar is a coniferous tree, not a thorny bush.

52.

Assertion (A): Wet clothes take a longer time to dry on a humid day.
Reason (R): The rate of evaporation increases on a humid day.

Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are false.
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(A) is true, but (R) is false.

✔ Correct Answer: (4) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Explanation: Wet clothes take longer to dry on a humid day because the air is already saturated with moisture, decreasing the rate of evaporation.

53.

The opening time of Central Government offices in India is 09:00 a.m. IST. What will be the local time at 78°30′ E (near Hyderabad) and 92°45′ E (near Aizawl)?

08:19 a.m. and 09:16 a.m.
08:44 a.m. and 09:41 a.m.
09:16 a.m. and 08:19 a.m.
09:41 a.m. and 08:44 a.m.

✔ Correct Answer: (2) 08:44 a.m. and 09:41 a.m.

Explanation: 1° longitude = 4 minutes. Hyderabad (78°30'E) is 4°30' west of 82°30'E (IST), so time is 18 minutes behind = 8:42 a.m. Aizawl (92°45'E) is 10°15' east of 82°30'E, so time is 41 minutes ahead = 9:41 a.m.

54.

Consider statements about migration:
A. Migration has no effect on population size.
B. International migration is largely from less developed to more developed nations.
C. Sudan has experienced a loss in population due to emigration.

All A, B and C are correct.
Only A and C are correct.
Only A and B are correct.
Only B and C are correct.

✔ Correct Answer: (4) Only B and C are correct.

Explanation: Migration does affect population size (A is wrong). International migration is indeed from less developed to more developed nations (B is correct). Sudan has experienced population loss due to emigration (C is correct).

55.

What causes the formation of mushroom rocks?

Erosion
Deposition
Earthquake
Weathering

✔ Correct Answer: (1) Erosion

Explanation: Mushroom rocks are formed by wind erosion, where the base of a rock is eroded more than the top.

56.

What do we call the streams of water flowing constantly on the ocean surface in definite directions?

Tsunami
Tides
Waves
Currents

✔ Correct Answer: (4) Currents

Explanation: Ocean currents are continuous, directed movements of seawater.

57.

Assertion (A): Tropical deciduous trees shed their leaves in the dry season.
Reason (R): Trees adapt according to climatic conditions and shed their leaves to conserve water in dry season.

Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are false.
(A) is true, but (R) is false.

✔ Correct Answer: (2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: The shedding of leaves is an adaptation to conserve water during the dry season.

58.

The National Medical Commission's Code of Medical Ethics states every physician should prescribe drugs that come under ________ medicines.

International
Superfluous
Preventive
Generic

✔ Correct Answer: (4) Generic

Explanation: The code of ethics encourages physicians to prescribe generic drugs to make healthcare more affordable.

66.

In which state would you find the sea coast where Vasco da Gama first landed after discovering the sea route from Europe to India?

Karnataka
Kerala
Tamil Nadu
Andhra Pradesh

✔ Correct Answer: (2) Kerala

Explanation: Vasco da Gama landed at Calicut (Kozhikode) in Kerala in 1498.

Civics & Social Issues (Q. 59–65, 67–70)

59.

A stereotypical viewpoint regards housework as ________.

valuable work that women do
difficult for women
time-consuming for women
women's natural work

✔ Correct Answer: (4) women's natural work

Explanation: Stereotypically, housework is seen as a natural and inherent role for women.

60.

Which mechanism in a democratic country puts a limit on the powers of the government?

Multi-party system
Presence of pressure groups
Regular elections
People asserting their rights

✔ Correct Answer: (4) People asserting their rights

Explanation: An active and aware citizenry is the ultimate check on government power in a democracy.

61.

Which statements are true?
A. Women are emotional, is a common gender stereotype.
B. The concepts of purity and pollution are associated with caste system.
C. English is a superior language, is a prejudiced statement.
D. Recognition of plurality of religions is not a feature of diversity in India.

Only B
Only A
A, B and C
Only B and D

✔ Correct Answer: (3) A, B and C

Explanation: A, B, and C are all true statements. D is false because the recognition of religious plurality is a key feature of India's diversity.

62.

"An African-American refused to give up her seat on a bus to a white man in 1955 and the incident led to the Civil Rights Movement in USA." Who was this person?

Noam Chomsky
Rosa Parks
Nelson Mandela
Rosa Luxemburg

✔ Correct Answer: (2) Rosa Parks

Explanation: Rosa Parks' refusal to give up her bus seat was a pivotal moment in the Civil Rights Movement.

63.

Which Fundamental Rights are given to every arrested person under Article 22?
A. Right to be informed of the offence.
B. Right to be presented before a magistrate within 48 hours.
C. Right not to be ill-treated or tortured.
D. Right of women and children not to be arrested.

Only A and D are correct.
Only B, C and D are correct.
Only A and C are correct.
Only A and B are correct.

✔ Correct Answer: (3) Only A and C are correct.

Explanation: Article 22 guarantees the right to be informed of the grounds of arrest (A) and the right not to be ill-treated (C). The right to be presented before a magistrate is within 24 hours, not 48 (B is wrong). There is no blanket right that women and children cannot be arrested (D is wrong).

67.

The most distinctive aspect about the tribal societies is that there is very little ________ among them.

heterogeneity
hierarchy
disunity
diversity

✔ Correct Answer: (2) hierarchy

Explanation: Tribal societies are characterized by a relative lack of hierarchy compared to caste-based societies.

68.

Consider statements:
(A) Enforcement of laws is even more important when the law seeks to protect the weak from the strong.
(B) Markets everywhere tend to be exploitative of workers only.

Only (A) is correct.
Only (B) is correct.
Both (A) and (B) are correct.
Neither (A) nor (B) is correct.

✔ Correct Answer: (1) Only (A) is correct.

Explanation: Enforcement of laws protecting the weak is crucial (A). While markets can be exploitative, they are not exploitative of only workers (B is too absolute).

69.

Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) are being used in India since 2004. It mainly saves ________.

approximately 1,50,000 trees that are required to be cut to make ballot papers
the time of the voters and the Election Commission
the energy and efforts of local public
the money transferred illegally for getting votes

✔ Correct Answer: (1) approximately 1,50,000 trees that are required to be cut to make ballot papers

Explanation: EVMs are primarily promoted for their environmental benefit by saving trees.

70.

What would you commonly associate a ginning mill with?

Sugar
Cotton bales
Wheat flour
Sunflower

✔ Correct Answer: (2) Cotton bales

Explanation: A ginning mill is used to separate cotton fibers from their seeds.

Social Studies Pedagogy (Q. 71–90)

71.

Which source will provide primary information 'to teach about challenges faced by women at workplace'?

Textbooks
Newspaper articles
Personal interviews
Biographies

✔ Correct Answer: (3) Personal interviews

Explanation: Primary sources are firsthand accounts. Personal interviews with women workers provide direct, primary information.

72.

Which statement(s) are correct regarding evaluation?
A. NEP 2020: evaluation will be creative and multidimensional (360 degree).
B. Formative assessment is competency-based, it promotes learning.
C. Criterion-referenced assessment compares student to other students.
D. Norm-referenced assessment compares to a pre-determined standard.

A, C and D only
A and D only
A only
A, B, C and D

✔ Correct Answer: (3) A only

Explanation: Statement A about NEP 2020 is correct. B is incorrect: Formative assessment is not necessarily competency-based. C and D are swapped: C describes Norm-referenced, and D describes Criterion-referenced assessment.

73.

What should be the sequence for preparing a project on 'Role of Government in Health System'?
A. Presenting findings B. Deciding objectives C. Planning data collection D. Finding specific sources

A, B, C, D
B, D, C, A
B, C, D, A
A, C, B, D

✔ Correct Answer: (3) B, C, D, A

Explanation: Correct sequence: Decide objectives (B), plan data collection (C), find specific sources (D), then present findings (A).

74.

Assertion (A): Social studies is related to culture and civilization and affirms the scientific approach.
Reason (R): Social science has nothing to do with art. It is related only to science.

Both (A) and (R) are false.
(A) is true, but (R) is false.
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

✔ Correct Answer: (2) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Explanation: Social studies is interdisciplinary and is connected to both science and the arts. (R) is a narrow and incorrect view.

75.

Assertion (A): Concepts should be explained through lived experiences of individuals and communities.
Reason (R): Teaching generalised notes on cultural, social and class differences may generate biases and prejudices.

Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(A) is false, but (R) is true.
(A) is true, but (R) is false.

✔ Correct Answer: (1) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: Both statements are true. However, the reason for using lived experiences (A) is to make learning meaningful and relatable, not primarily to avoid biases (R).

76.

Consider statements:
(A) Cooperative learning and collaborative learning are two different methods.
(B) Each student prepared a presentation on "Our Food" and contributed – this is collaborative learning.

Both (A) and (B) are correct.
Only (B) is correct.
Only (A) is correct.
Both (A) and (B) are incorrect.

✔ Correct Answer: (1) Both (A) and (B) are correct.

Explanation: Cooperative learning is structured with specific roles, while collaborative learning is more open-ended. The example given is collaborative.

77.

Ambika wants to teach about land features, ocean currents, volcanoes and climate. Which teaching-learning material should she choose?

Graphs, pictures, flashcards
Working models, maps, globe
Charts, scrapbooks, graphs
Timelines, blackboard, specimens

✔ Correct Answer: (2) Working models, maps, globe

Explanation: Working models (for volcanoes), maps (for land features, currents), and a globe (for climate) are the most appropriate resources for these geographical concepts.

78.

The objectives of teaching history are to:
A. illustrate sources used to reconstruct history.
B. appreciate skills and knowledge of early societies.
C. identify archaeological evidences and making deductions.
D. remember all dates, places and persons in textbooks.

A, B and D
A, C and D
B, C and D
A, B and C

✔ Correct Answer: (4) A, B and C

Explanation: The objectives of teaching history include understanding sources (A), appreciating past societies (B), and analyzing evidence (C). Rote memorization of dates (D) is not a primary objective.

79.

The teacher tells students "temperature decreases with increase in height". Then students solve problems related to temperature at different latitudes. This is an example of:

Inductive approach
Constructivist approach
Interdisciplinary approach
Deductive approach

✔ Correct Answer: (4) Deductive approach

Explanation: The teacher first gives a general rule, and then students apply it to specific problems. This is the deductive approach.

80.

A middle school social studies teacher assigns a project on Shivaji. Which would be highly relevant to develop critical thinking?
A. Prescribed textbook B. Books from school library C. Details from more than one Internet website D. Information shared by teacher in class E. Information shared in social networking apps

Only A and D
Only A, C, D and E
Only A, B and C
Only A, B, C and D

✔ Correct Answer: (4) Only A, B, C and D

Explanation: To develop critical thinking, students should consult multiple sources (textbook, library, internet) and teacher input. Information from social networking apps (E) is often unreliable.

81.

Sonu is a visually disabled student of class VII. With reference to this, choose the correct option.

He must be in a special school.
All students should be sympathetic towards him.
Social science teacher must modify teaching and assessment strategies to include him in normal class.
He can study in a normal school, but should be promoted without examination.

✔ Correct Answer: (3) Social science teacher must modify teaching and assessment strategies to include him in the normal class.

Explanation: This is the principle of inclusion. The teacher must adapt to include the student, not the other way around.

82.

Which of the following could be the aim of a social science teacher?
A. Making students respond to desired situations.
B. Accepting the student as an active learner.
C. Controlling free expression to maintain discipline.
D. Giving importance to ambitious behaviour.

B only
A, B, C and D
A, C and D only
A only

✔ Correct Answer: (1) B only

Explanation: Accepting students as active learners is a key aim. Making students respond to desired situations (A) and controlling free expression (C) are not progressive aims. Motivating ambition (D) is not a primary aim.

83.

Which methods of teaching social science involves students to go beyond textbooks?
A. Project work B. Lecture C. Questioning D. Demonstration

A, C and D
A and B
A, B and C
B and C

✔ Correct Answer: (1) A, C and D

Explanation: Project work (A), questioning (C), and demonstration (D) all involve active learning beyond the textbook. Lectures (B) are more teacher-centered and textbook-bound.

84.

What is the main objective of peer assessment in evaluation?

Making the evaluation process simple for the teacher.
Providing a structured learning process to critique peers.
Strengthening social relationships while providing feedback.
Enabling students to learn to assess and provide constructive feedback.

✔ Correct Answer: (4) Enabling students to learn to assess and provide constructive feedback.

Explanation: The main goal of peer assessment is to develop students' evaluative skills and their ability to give and receive constructive feedback.

85.

During a discussion on "How Weather Forecasts Help Us", a teacher may:

ask students to draw pictures of different weather conditions.
show a news clip on weather forecasting.
assign roles of persons involved in different rural and urban professions.
show a PowerPoint presentation containing summary of textbook contents.

✔ Correct Answer: (2) show a news clip on weather forecasting.

Explanation: A news clip provides a real-world, current context for discussion, making learning more relevant.

86.

Which questions or activities promote analytical thinking and creativity?
A. Harappan civilization settled near which river?
B. Make a map of your house.
C. Why are day and night not equal throughout the year?
D. What is the purpose of celebrating festivals?

Only A and B
Only A and D
Only C and D
A, C and D only

✔ Correct Answer: (3) Only C and D

Explanation: Questions C and D are open-ended and require analysis, reasoning, and creative thought. A is a recall question. B is a creative activity but not analytical.

87.

Which questions will develop critical or logical thinking in students?
A. Open-ended questions B. Closed-ended questions C. Exploratory questions D. Convergent questions

B, C and D
A, B and C
A, B and D
A, C and D

✔ Correct Answer: (4) A, C and D

Explanation: Open-ended (A), exploratory (C), and divergent/convergent questions (D) all promote critical thinking. Closed-ended questions (B) typically test recall.

88.

What would be the correct sequence of the steps in the 5E model lesson plan?

Explain, elaborate, evaluate, engage, explore
Engage, explore, explain, elaborate, evaluate
Evaluate, explain, explore, engage, elaborate
Explore, engage, explain, elaborate, evaluate

✔ Correct Answer: (2) Engage, explore, explain, elaborate, evaluate

Explanation: This is the standard sequence for the 5E instructional model.

89.

A learner is continuously getting low marks in social science. Which assessments are required to understand the difficulties?
A. Placement B. Summative C. Diagnostic D. Formative

A and B
C and D
A and D
Only B

✔ Correct Answer: (2) C and D

Explanation: To diagnose learning difficulties, a teacher should use diagnostic (C) and formative (D) assessments.

90.

While discussing gender roles in the classroom a teacher should:
A. Suggest different professions for males and females.
B. Offer different types of education to boys and girls.
C. Lay emphasis on challenging gender stereotypes.

B and C
Only C
A and C
A and B

✔ Correct Answer: (2) Only C

Explanation: The teacher's role is to challenge gender stereotypes (C), not reinforce them by suggesting different professions (A) or education (B) for males and females.

Part IV: Language I – English (Q. 91–120)

Note This section is for candidates who opted for English as Language I.

Language Pedagogy (Q. 91–105)

91.

When monolingual speakers move from formal to informal modes of speech, it is called:

Slang
Code-mixing
Dialect
Code-switching

✔ Correct Answer: (4) Code-switching

Explanation: Code-switching is the practice of alternating between two or more languages or varieties of language in conversation.

92.

Which theorist hypothesized that children have a built-in readiness to learn language?

Freud
Jim Cummins
Chomsky
Skinner

✔ Correct Answer: (3) Chomsky

Explanation: Noam Chomsky proposed the theory of Universal Grammar, suggesting that humans are born with an innate capacity for language acquisition.

93.

The purpose of remedial teaching is to:

teach again, the language items already learnt.
teach again, the language items not properly learnt.
test recently taught items.
introduce new language items.

✔ Correct Answer: (2) teach again, the language items not properly learnt.

Explanation: Remedial teaching focuses on addressing specific learning gaps.

94.

If children hear two languages spoken around them, this exposure will:

confuse them.
put children at an advantage.
put children at a disadvantage.
not make any difference.

✔ Correct Answer: (2) put children at an advantage.

Explanation: Research shows that bilingualism offers cognitive and social advantages.

95.

You bring objects to class, ask children to name them, write responses, and then give the definition of 'nouns'. This method is called:

Deductive method
Direct Method
Incidental method
Inductive method

✔ Correct Answer: (4) Inductive method

Explanation: The teacher presents examples first, and students derive the rule (definition of a noun) from them.

96.

Input is defined as the ________ a learner hears and responds to for its meaning.

Communication
Language
Conversation
Rules

✔ Correct Answer: (2) Language

Explanation: Input in language learning refers to the language that learners are exposed to.

97.

Skinner opined that children would repeat sounds if they were followed by a pleasurable response. This viewpoint has its foundation in:

the language acquisition device.
observational learning.
the nativist theory.
operant conditioning.

✔ Correct Answer: (4) operant conditioning.

Explanation: Skinner's theory of operant conditioning states that behaviors followed by positive reinforcement are likely to be repeated.

98.

To learn about the system of rules that govern how words can be meaningfully arranged to form phrases and sentences, you need to study:

Semantics
Syntax
Phonetics
Morphology

✔ Correct Answer: (2) Syntax

Explanation: Syntax is the set of rules for combining words into phrases and sentences.

99.

Based on your observation to develop a particular skill, you decide to use the Direct method. For which skill will you use this method?

Speaking skills
Writing skills
Reading skills
Listening skills

✔ Correct Answer: (1) Speaking skills

Explanation: The Direct Method emphasizes oral communication and uses the target language for instruction.

100.

Language classroom often focuses on group and pair work. This also helps in developing an important value associated with an inclusive classroom, which is:

Envy
Competition
Collaboration
Sympathy

✔ Correct Answer: (3) Collaboration

Explanation: Group and pair work promote collaborative learning and a sense of community.

101.

Children are motivated by activities that are:

meaningful to teachers.
planned by children.
meaningful to them.
planned by an adult.

✔ Correct Answer: (3) meaningful to them.

Explanation: Activities must be personally meaningful and relevant to the learner to be motivating.

102.

You tell your friend that functional grammar means teaching grammar in/through:

explanation of literary content.
rules in isolation.
rules supported with examples.
context.

✔ Correct Answer: (4) context.

Explanation: Functional grammar is taught in context, showing how grammar is used in real communication.

103.

A 'Recall-Type' test is a test of:

Memory
Thinking ability
Imagination
Understanding

✔ Correct Answer: (1) Memory

Explanation: Recall-type tests assess the ability to retrieve information from memory.

104.

Some words can have more than one meaning. The meaning of words in a particular language relates to which of the following?

Syntax
Morphology
Phonology
Semantics

✔ Correct Answer: (4) Semantics

Explanation: Semantics is the study of meaning in language.

105.

You want to identify the deficiencies and difficulties of the learners in your class. Which evaluation would you use?

Diagnostic evaluation
Follow-up evaluation
Criterion-referenced evaluation
Summative evaluation

✔ Correct Answer: (1) Diagnostic evaluation

Explanation: Diagnostic evaluation is used to identify learning difficulties and deficiencies.

Poetry (Q. 106–111)

106.

What did the cricket do in summer?

Sang
Slogged like an ant
Slept and relaxed
Sat and played

✔ Correct Answer: (1) Sang

Explanation: The poem states the cricket was "accustomed to sing" through the summer months.

107.

Study statements: A. During winter, it was difficult to dance on snow-covered ground. B. However, the cricket could have enjoyed skating.

B is right and A is wrong.
A is right and B is wrong.
Both A and B are right.
Both A and B are wrong.

✔ Correct Answer: (2) A is right and B is wrong.

Explanation: The cricket was struggling in winter and not dancing. The poem does not mention skating.

108.

What made the cricket go to the ant?

Empty cupboard
Piles of grains at ant's place
Starvation and famine
Approaching winter

✔ Correct Answer: (3) Starvation and famine

Explanation: "At last by starvation and famine made bold" shows this was the reason.

109.

Which genre does the poem belong to?

Sonnet
Epic
Lyric
Fable

✔ Correct Answer: (4) Fable

Explanation: A fable is a short story that conveys a moral, often with animals as characters (cricket, ant).

110.

What is the theme of the poem?

If we don't care for our future, we will eventually suffer.
We should keep partying and dancing.
We should always pursue our hobbies.
We should always keep slogging like the ant.

✔ Correct Answer: (1) If we don't care for our future, we will eventually suffer.

Explanation: The poem teaches the importance of planning and hard work for the future.

111.

... sunny months of gay summer and spring. Identify the figure of speech used.

Simile
Alliteration
Metaphor
Personification

✔ Correct Answer: (2) Alliteration

Explanation: The repetition of the 's' sound in "sunny" and "summer" is alliteration.

Prose (Q. 112–120)

112.

The doctors amputated Aimee's legs because:

they were not of the same length
they had no bones
they were disfigured
they were not strong

✔ Correct Answer: (2) they had no bones

Explanation: The passage states Aimee was "born with no shin bones".

113.

When Aimee began to use designer legs, she caught the attention of:

the fashion and beauty industry
photographers
sports committees
designers

✔ Correct Answer: (1) the fashion and beauty industry

Explanation: The passage says, "The fashion and beauty industry took note of Aimee's talent and beauty".

114.

Aimee had a painful childhood because:
A. both her legs did not have bones.
B. she underwent a lot of surgeries.

Only B is correct
Only A is correct
Both A and B are correct
Both A and B are incorrect

✔ Correct Answer: (3) Both A and B are correct

Explanation: Aimee had no shin bones (A) and underwent many surgeries (B).

115.

Which statement is true?

Aimee's mother gave her special care when she was young.
The Boston meet was for double amputees only.
At the Boston meet, Aimee was the only one on wooden legs.
Soon Aimee started promoting health products.

✔ Correct Answer: (3) At the Boston meet, Aimee was the only one on wooden legs.

Explanation: The passage states she was "the only athlete wearing wooden legs".

116.

At the Boston sports meet, Aimee discovered all other athletes had only one artificial leg. What did she decide to do?

She decided to have designer legs.
She decided to enter long jump competition next.
She decided to enter the fashion industry.
She decided to participate in athletics.

✔ Correct Answer: (2) She decided to enter long jump competition next.

Explanation: The passage says, "She decided to enter the long jump competition next".

117.

Which word is most similar in meaning to 'self-sufficient'?

Dependent
Independent
Needy
Helpless

✔ Correct Answer: (2) Independent

Explanation: Self-sufficient means independent and able to take care of oneself.

118.

Which word is most opposite to 'unconventional'?

Traditional
Innovative
Unusual
Eccentric

✔ Correct Answer: (1) Traditional

Explanation: Unconventional means not traditional or usual. Traditional is its antonym.

119.

Identify the clause in the underlined part: "A year later, she broke the world record in it."

Noun clause
Adjective clause
Adverb clause
Principal clause

✔ Correct Answer: (4) Principal clause

Explanation: "she broke the world record" is the main clause; "in it" is a prepositional phrase.

120.

Which part of speech does the underlined word belong to? "Her mother, however, treated her as a self-sufficient person."

Adverb
Interjection
Conjunction
Adjective

✔ Correct Answer: (1) Adverb

Explanation: "However" is a conjunctive adverb that connects the sentence to the previous one.

Part V: Language II – English (Q. 121–150)

Note This section is for candidates who opted for English as Language II.

Passage 1 (Q. 121–128)

121.

The passage talks about:

Asia-Pacific business models.
best business model.
elements required for flourishing business.
innovative Japanese enterprises.

✔ Correct Answer: (4) innovative Japanese enterprises.

Explanation: The passage focuses on SMEs and niche companies in Japan.

122.

What are the bases of Japanese businesses?

Cost control but quality compromise
Mass production and low cost
Good service and quality products
Demand and supply

✔ Correct Answer: (3) Good service and quality products

Explanation: The passage emphasizes delivering quality products and services.

123.

Japanese firms believe in the principle of:

doing new things.
doing most of all little things right.
doing only few important things right.
doing all little things right.

✔ Correct Answer: (4) doing all little things right.

Explanation: "by doing all the little things right" is explicitly stated.

124.

Japanese products are not in competition with other countries in terms of:

cost and volume.
mass production, low-cost models.
high profit margins.
customer-centric approach.

✔ Correct Answer: (1) cost and volume.

Explanation: "Japanese products cannot remain competitive regarding cost and volume".

125.

Choose the word which most nearly means the same as 'booming' in '... nation's booming small and medium ...'

supplanting
growing
noisy
loud

✔ Correct Answer: (2) growing

Explanation: Booming means rapidly growing or expanding.

126.

Which part of speech is the underlined word in: "... many such firms are thriving, whether supplying business contracts or selling direct to customers."

Verb
Gerund
Adverb
Noun

✔ Correct Answer: (2) Gerund

Explanation: "Supplying" is a verb form acting as a noun (gerund) in this sentence.

127.

Read statements: A. Firms are utilizing an agile corporate structure. B. A large number of manufacturers have shifted to niche fields.

A is true, but B is false.
A is correct but not related to B.
Both A and B are false.
Both A and B are true but not connected to each other.

✔ Correct Answer: (4) Both A and B are true but not connected to each other.

Explanation: Both statements are true, but they are separate points in the passage.

128.

According to the passage, what is not a crucial factor in a firm's success? Select the most appropriate combination.
A. Adaptability B. Mass production C. Change in focus of production D. Client satisfaction E. New offerings

A, B, E
A, D, E
A, C, D
C, D, E

✔ Correct Answer: (1) A, B, E

Explanation: Mass production (B) is a challenge, not a factor in success. Adaptability (A) and new offerings (E) are not mentioned as crucial factors in the context of Sanken Kogyo's success.

Passage 2 (Q. 129–135)

129.

Digital technologies can help in solving the major challenges of:
A. Poverty B. Climate change C. Price surge D. Paperless green offices

A, B, D
A, B, C
A, C, D
B, C, D

✔ Correct Answer: (1) A, B, D

Explanation: Digital technologies can help with poverty (A), climate change (B), and paperless offices (D). Price surge (C) is not mentioned.

130.

Study statements: A. Success of digital technology depends on high quality digital connectivity. B. Online environment needs to be safe and secure.

B is right and A is wrong.
A is right and B is wrong.
Both A and B are right.
Both A and B are wrong.

✔ Correct Answer: (3) Both A and B are right.

Explanation: The passage states the need for high-quality connectivity and a safe online environment.

131.

Which word means the same as 'fosters' (para 3)?

encourages
squelches
stifles
serves

✔ Correct Answer: (1) encourages

Explanation: Fosters means to encourage or promote the development of something.

132.

Read statements: A. G20 enhances engagement among Global Innovation builders as start-ups. B. G20 is a launching pad for digital economy.

A is correct and B is wrong.
Both A and B are correct.
Both A and B are wrong.
B is correct and A is wrong.

✔ Correct Answer: (2) Both A and B are correct.

Explanation: Both statements about G20's role are correct according to the passage.

133.

Which part of speech is the underlined word? "From economy to sustainability, all were looped in the strings of digital innovation."

Verb
Preposition
Adjective
Conjunction

✔ Correct Answer: (1) Verb

Explanation: "Looped" is the past tense of the verb "to loop".

134.

Which word from para 2 means the same as 'metamorphosis'?

transformation
importance
inclusion
application

✔ Correct Answer: (1) transformation

Explanation: Metamorphosis means a complete transformation.

135.

Read statements carefully and choose the most appropriate alternative:
A. G20 enhances engagement among Global Innovation builders as start-ups.
B. G20 is a launching pad for digital economy.

A is correct and B is wrong.
Both A and B are correct.
Both A and B are wrong.
B is correct and A is wrong.

✔ Correct Answer: (2) Both A and B are correct.

Explanation: Both statements are supported by the passage.

Language Pedagogy (Q. 136–150)

136.

Which of the following are not related to emergent literacy?

Basic alphabet knowledge
Taking note
Understanding that print carries meaning
Early phonological awareness

✔ Correct Answer: (2) Taking note

Explanation: Emergent literacy includes alphabet knowledge, understanding print carries meaning, and phonological awareness. Taking notes is a later skill.

137.

You love to have classroom discourse because it:

gives you power as a teacher.
hardly prompts the learners to think.
brings clarity and distinctiveness in the speech.
does not give importance to learner's contributions.

✔ Correct Answer: (3) brings clarity and distinctiveness in the speech.

Explanation: Classroom discourse provides opportunities for students to articulate and refine their thinking.

138.

Children who are differently abled join a new school. Which teacher reaction reflects the concept of inclusive education?

"Oh ! How will such children mix with other children of the class ?"
"Oh ! There should be a separate section for such children."
"Oh ! How can I teach children who cannot even hear ?"
"Wow ! It will provide a good opportunity for the children to learn to help each other and be supportive."

✔ Correct Answer: (4) "Wow ! It will provide a good opportunity for the children to learn to help each other and be supportive."

Explanation: This response reflects a positive, inclusive mindset.

139.

Which speaker would be most likely to engage in code-mixing?

Garv, a bilingual child
Satyaveer, a monolingual adult
Arpita, a monolingual child
Meera, a bilingual adult

✔ Correct Answer: (1) Garv, a bilingual child

Explanation: Code-mixing is common among bilinguals, especially children.

140.

The most important element in Communicative Language Teaching is:

the skill of writing.
meaning.
the structure of language.
memorizing the rules of grammar.

✔ Correct Answer: (2) meaning.

Explanation: Communicative Language Teaching (CLT) prioritizes communication and meaning over structure.

141.

Which one of the following is not relevant in respect of selection of correct teaching aids?

It should be simple and easy to use.
It need not have specific educational values.
It should be in sync with the topic being taught in the class.
It should be child-centered.

✔ Correct Answer: (2) It need not have specific educational values.

Explanation: A teaching aid must have specific educational value.

142.

Which among the following highlights the significant difference in Vygotsky's and Piaget's theory?

The constructive/objective role of children in the process of meaning-making
Understanding that learning is a simple/complex process
Understanding children as active/passive learners
The relationship between language and thought

✔ Correct Answer: (4) The relationship between language and thought

Explanation: Vygotsky saw language as central to thought, while Piaget saw thought as developing before language.

143.

You go through the students' notebooks and give remarks. This is an example of:

Notebook checking
Feedback
Daily remarks
Evaluation

✔ Correct Answer: (2) Feedback

Explanation: Giving remarks on notebooks is a form of feedback on student work.

144.

A language teacher wants to conduct a problem-solving method effectively. She should:

participate actively in the process.
encourage divergent thinking.
look at the students' activities from a distance.
ask the students to consult their parents.

✔ Correct Answer: (2) encourage divergent thinking.

Explanation: Problem-solving should encourage multiple solutions and creative thinking.

145.

Rakesh often makes errors in tense forms. To help him, you can:

explain to him the rules of grammar.
ask Rakesh to write the rules ten times.
scold Rakesh to make him learn the rules.
take up many examples for the entire class and pay special attention to Rakesh.

✔ Correct Answer: (4) take up many examples for the entire class and pay special attention to Rakesh.

Explanation: This approach provides whole-class instruction with individualized support.

146.

Mandakini often makes mistakes while using tenses. You can help her by:

explaining or writing rules of grammar.
giving her real life situations or examples where she can use tenses.
asking her to memorize rules of tenses thoroughly.
asking Mandakini to write tenses 10 times.

✔ Correct Answer: (2) giving her real life situations or examples where she can use tenses.

Explanation: Using real-life contexts makes grammar learning meaningful.

147.

Phonemic awareness refers to:

the ability to establish relation between phonemes and graphemes.
the ability to identify and manipulate phonemes in spoken words.
reading words accurately and fluently.
writing with correct spellings.

✔ Correct Answer: (2) the ability to identify and manipulate phonemes in spoken words.

Explanation: Phonemic awareness is an auditory skill.

148.

Good speakers have the ability of:

Paraphrasing
Translating
Understanding
Quick analysis

✔ Correct Answer: (1) Paraphrasing

Explanation: Good speakers can rephrase ideas in their own words to clarify meaning.

149.

A listener listens to the main idea, predicting, drawing inferences and summarizing. What are these strategies known as?

Cognitive processes
Analytical processes
Top-down processes
Bottom-up processes

✔ Correct Answer: (3) Top-down processes

Explanation: These strategies (main idea, inference, summarizing) are top-down, where the listener uses prior knowledge to understand the whole.

150.

As a teacher, you prefer to use audio-visual aids and physical activities because they:

provide relief to you in the classroom.
divert the attention of the learners.
utilize maximum number of senses to enhance learning.
facilitate effective assessment.

✔ Correct Answer: (3) utilize maximum number of senses to enhance learning.

Explanation: Audio-visual aids and physical activities engage multiple senses, which enhances learning.

Final Preparation Strategy

1. Master the Syllabus & Exam Pattern

Understand the weightage of each section. Paper 2 has 150 questions to be answered in 2.5 hours. There is no negative marking.

2. Focus on NCERT Textbooks

Thoroughly read and understand the NCERT textbooks for Classes VI to VIII for all subjects (Maths, Science, Social Science, and English). This is the foundation for the exam.

3. Prioritize Child Development & Pedagogy

This section (Q. 1–30) is crucial. Focus on theories by Piaget, Vygotsky, Kohlberg, and concepts like inclusive education, assessment, and motivation.

4. Choose Your Subject Area Wisely

You must choose between Mathematics & Science (Q. 31–90) and Social Studies (Q. 31–90). Decide early based on your strength and interest.

5. Practice with Previous Year Papers

Solve at least 5–10 years of CTET/TET previous year question papers. This will help you understand the question pattern, difficulty level, and important topics.

6. Take Mock Tests

Regularly take full-length mock tests in a timed environment. This will improve your speed, accuracy, and time management skills.

7. Focus on Language Skills

For Parts IV and V, practice reading comprehension, grammar, and pedagogy questions. Understand the difference between Language I and Language II requirements.

8. Active Recall & Revision

Make concise notes for quick revision. Use techniques like flashcards, mind maps, and self-quizzing to improve retention.

9. Avoid Common Traps

Be careful of options in pedagogy questions that sound moralistic but are not child-centered. Also, be wary of extreme statements (using words like "always," "never," "only") in any section.

10. Stay Updated

While CTET is largely static, be aware of the latest educational policies and updates, as they can appear in the Pedagogy section.

📌 Key Takeaway

Consistent practice, conceptual clarity, and time management are the pillars of success in CTET/TET. Use this analysis as a roadmap, and focus on your weak areas. Good luck!

CTET/TET 2026 SET-3 Paper II (Code Q)solved paper with explaination